Sorry, I know this isn't really the point of this thread, but are you seriously making these arguments in good faith? We derive the vast majority of our employment law, including worker standards and protections, from EU Regulations and Directives. These generally provide a floor (rather than a ceiling) of rights. So while e.g. the Working Time Directive dictates workers must have at least 4 weeks (20 days) paid leave a year, many countries exceed that (France, Denmark and Austria, for example, have 25 statutorily-guaranteed days) (the UK has 20). Countries are permitted to exceed these minimum standards. So if the UK does exceed the EU statutory minimum in certain respects, how is that evidence of malign intent by the EU, or of EU legislation somehow shackling the UK?
The EU sets certain minimum standards of workers' rights that the UK, upon leaving, would either adhere to (or exceed) anyway (in which case, why leave?), or lower (which is obviously bad for the typical worker - but better for 'big business', I daresay!).